|55.1] A 30-year-old GI PI who underwent a cesarean section 3 days previously has a fever of l()l°F. The wound is indurated and erythematous. Which of the following is the best management?
A. Initiation of intravenous ampicillin
B. Initiation of intravenous heparin
C. Placement of a warm compress on the wound
D. Opening of the wound
[55.2] Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for postpartum endomyometritis?
A. Numerous vaginal examinations
B. Bacterial vaginosis
C. Cesarean delivery
D. Intrauterine pressure monitors
E. Prolonged rupture of membranes
|55.3| Which of the following bacteria is most commonly isolated in endomyometritis complicating patients who have undergone cesarean delivery?
A. Bacteroules species
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Group B streptococcus
|55.4] A 22-year-old woman who underwent cesarean delivery has persistent fever of 102°F despite triple antibiotic therapy (ampicillin. gentamicin, and clindamycin). Urinalysis, wound, breasts, and uterine fundus are normal on examination. CT scan of the pelvis is suggestive of septic-pelvic thrombophlebitis. Which of the following is the best therapy for this condition?
A. Continued triple antibiotic therapy
B. Discontinue antibiotic therapy and initiate intravenous heparin
C. Continue antibiotic therapy and begin intravenous heparin
D. Surgical embolectomy
E. Streptokinase therapy
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